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Jan 7, 2020 at 21:15 comment added demully So do currency declines cause/correlate with higher real interest rates? No, because a strong economy tends to lead to stronger currency, and higher real rates. Both are first-order effects of a strong economy. However, if the currency tanks, that is inflationary, and inflation produces a policy response, in the form of tighter monetary policy. Higher real is a second-order effect from a weaker currency. Even if higher real and a stronger currency are first-orders of the economy. Different parts of the calculus can pull in different directions.
Jan 7, 2020 at 21:10 comment added demully A slightly different and more general distinction between a "first-order" versus a "higher order" effect (the latter being exactly as above) is that there is no direct impact. dC/dX = 0. dC/d(X^y) can also be zero, which is the higher-order effect above (perfectly correctly stated). However dX/dZ and dC/dZ might not be zero, in which the case the chain rule kicks in. Buying the asset might not change my consumption; but it might change my preference/aversion for something else, which in turn might affect my consumption. Simple thought example to follow...
Jan 7, 2020 at 13:19 answer added Koval Boris timeline score: 4
Oct 29, 2019 at 13:13 comment added Aqqqq @AlexC Thank you for your comment. Am I correct that the reason why "it has no first-order effect on the variance of your consumption stream." is that only "a little bit more of such an asset" was bought?
Oct 29, 2019 at 3:36 comment added Alex C If you make a small change $\epsilon$ to a sytem and the result is a change proportional to $\epsilon$ that is a "first order effect" (i.e the impact is comparable to the change), if the change is proportional to $\epsilon^2$ that is a "second order effect" (small effect compared to the change), and so on.
Oct 28, 2019 at 20:53 history asked Aqqqq CC BY-SA 4.0