Skip to main content
Bumped by Community user
Bumped by Community user
Bumped by Community user
Bumped by Community user
added 18 characters in body
Source Link
Lisa Ann
  • 2.2k
  • 22
  • 42

The first step in the Black-Litterman method is to find the "implied market returns" (the prior). Usually this is calculated as: PI = lambda * SIGMA * w$\Pi = \lambda \Sigma w$, where PI$\Pi$ is the vector of returns "implied by the market", w$w$ is the vector of market weights (each element = security market cap / total market cap), SIGMA$\Sigma$ is the covariance matrix, lambda$\lambda$ is the market risk aversion (a constant).

I would like to use Black-Litterman to optimise a portfolio of individual stocks (something like 20 securities). My question is on the calculation of PI$\Pi$. Which universe should I use to calculate the vector PI$\Pi$?

  1. should I use only the stocks in my portfolio
  2. should I use all the stocks in the "market"? I could use all the stocks in the "market" but usually if I take an index (like FTSE World or S&P500) some security in the portfolio might not be present in the index. This might be an issue.

Thanks

The first step in the Black-Litterman method is to find the "implied market returns" (the prior). Usually this is calculated as: PI = lambda * SIGMA * w, where PI is the vector of returns "implied by the market", w is the vector of market weights (each element = security market cap / total market cap), SIGMA is the covariance matrix, lambda is the market risk aversion (a constant).

I would like to use Black-Litterman to optimise a portfolio of individual stocks (something like 20 securities). My question is on the calculation of PI. Which universe should I use to calculate the vector PI?

  1. should I use only the stocks in my portfolio
  2. should I use all the stocks in the "market"? I could use all the stocks in the "market" but usually if I take an index (like FTSE World or S&P500) some security in the portfolio might not be present in the index. This might be an issue.

Thanks

The first step in the Black-Litterman method is to find the "implied market returns" (the prior). Usually this is calculated as: $\Pi = \lambda \Sigma w$, where $\Pi$ is the vector of returns "implied by the market", $w$ is the vector of market weights (each element = security market cap / total market cap), $\Sigma$ is the covariance matrix, $\lambda$ is the market risk aversion (a constant).

I would like to use Black-Litterman to optimise a portfolio of individual stocks (something like 20 securities). My question is on the calculation of $\Pi$. Which universe should I use to calculate the vector $\Pi$?

  1. should I use only the stocks in my portfolio
  2. should I use all the stocks in the "market"? I could use all the stocks in the "market" but usually if I take an index (like FTSE World or S&P500) some security in the portfolio might not be present in the index. This might be an issue.

Thanks

Bumped by Community user
Bumped by Community user
Bumped by Community user
Bumped by Community user
Bumped by Community user
Source Link
randomwalker
  • 239
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3

Black-Litterman and Implied Market Returns

The first step in the Black-Litterman method is to find the "implied market returns" (the prior). Usually this is calculated as: PI = lambda * SIGMA * w, where PI is the vector of returns "implied by the market", w is the vector of market weights (each element = security market cap / total market cap), SIGMA is the covariance matrix, lambda is the market risk aversion (a constant).

I would like to use Black-Litterman to optimise a portfolio of individual stocks (something like 20 securities). My question is on the calculation of PI. Which universe should I use to calculate the vector PI?

  1. should I use only the stocks in my portfolio
  2. should I use all the stocks in the "market"? I could use all the stocks in the "market" but usually if I take an index (like FTSE World or S&P500) some security in the portfolio might not be present in the index. This might be an issue.

Thanks