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Jan 12, 2015 at 22:54 answer added Jason Nordwick timeline score: 1
Sep 4, 2013 at 3:00 review Community Evaluations
Sep 12, 2013 at 3:00
Jul 15, 2013 at 6:18 comment added user5399 Have you made any progress on this question? Is there anything in my answer which you have trouble following?
Jul 11, 2013 at 19:59 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackQuant/status/355415994459619329
Jul 10, 2013 at 3:37 comment added Matt Wolf that does not change the kind of algorithm you need to run the markets over. You need to include your all-in execution related costs and may find out that low volume will not push you over the "hurdle-rate", which may rank this particular arbitrage lower or even net-unprofitable.
Jul 10, 2013 at 2:00 comment added Paya Well, the idea is that the arbitrage opportunity can be at more than 2 markets at the same time. And the market depth at each exchange is finite IN VOLUME. What I mean is that at price 107, there might be only 3 pieces of the stock.
Jul 10, 2013 at 1:27 comment added Matt Wolf Example: Market1(fixed fee: 1, variable fee: 2%, BBO: 105/107), Market2(fixed fee: 0.5, variable fee 1%, BBO: 98/100). Variable Fees -> Buy asset at M2 for (100 + 1) and sell to M1 for (105-2.1). PnL with fixed fees applied: (105-0.5) - (100+1). -> Apply same logic to all markets and chose the most profitable one.
Jul 10, 2013 at 1:20 comment added Matt Wolf I find your question slightly confusing. Why you need more than 2 markets to present an arbitrage opportunity, 2 or more are already sufficient. And why is it complicated to add in your execution related fees, whether stated as a percentage of notional traded or as fixed fee per trade?
Jul 9, 2013 at 22:28 review First posts
Jul 9, 2013 at 23:26
Jul 9, 2013 at 22:10 history asked Paya CC BY-SA 3.0