Let $H$ be an investment strategy in a discrete price model. Proof $H$ is self financing if and only if the following holds for the portfolio process $P_t$: $$P_t = P_0 + \sum_{s=1}^tH_{s-1}(X_s-X_{s-1}) \quad \forall t=1, \dots,T$$
$\textbf{Definition:}$ $H_t$ self financing strategy $\iff (\Delta H_t)^TX_{t-1}=0\ \forall t=1, \dots,T$.
We did not define what a portfolio process is so I guess the portfolio value process is meant here: $V=V(H)=H^TX$ with prices $X$.
I tried $$(\Delta H_t)^TX_{t-1}=0 \iff H_t^TX_{t-1}=H_{t-1}^TX_{t-1} \iff \Delta(H_t^T)_t=\Delta(H\circ X)_t \\ \iff H_t^TX_t=H_0^TX_0+(H\circ X)_t$$
$\forall t=1,...,T$. With $P_t:=H_t^TX_t$ I get $$P_t = P_0 + \sum_{s=1}^tH_s(X_s-X_{s-1})\ \forall t=1,...,T$$ but I need $H_{s-1}$ instead of $H_s$. I also tried integration by parts and got the same result... How do I proof the claim?
Thank you in advance!