I'm trying to understand Numéraire concept so am reading the wiki page:
I couldn't understand the last formula's 2nd equation:
$$ E_{Q}\left[\left.\frac{M(0)}{M(T)}\frac{N(T)}{N(0)}\frac{S(T)}{N(T)}\right| \mathcal{F}(t)\right]/ E_Q\left[\left.\frac{M(0)}{M(T)}\frac{N(T)}{N(0)}\right| \mathcal{F}(t)\right] = \frac{M(t)}{N(t)}E_{Q}\left[\left.\frac{S(T)}{M(T)}\right| \mathcal{F}(t)\right] $$
Why so? Which part from the left hand side is mapped into $\frac{M(t)}{N(t)}$ and which part mapped to $E_{Q}\left[\left.\frac{S(T)}{M(T)}\right| \mathcal{F}(t)\right] $?
Just for reference, below is copied from the wiki page.
-- begin of wiki >>
In a financial market with traded securities, one may use a change of numéraire to price assets. For instance, if $M(t)=exp(∫_0^t r(s)ds)$ is the price at time $t$ of $\$1$ that was invested in the money market at time $0$, then all assets (say $S(t)$), priced in terms of the money market, are martingales with respect to the risk-neutral measure, (say $Q$). That is $$\frac{S(t)}{M(t)}=E_Q\left[\left.\frac{S_T}{M_T} \right| F_t\right], ∀t≤T$$
Now, suppose that $N(t)>0$ is another strictly positive traded asset (and hence a martingale when priced in terms of the money market). Then, we can define a new probability measure $Q^N$ by the Radon–Nikodym derivative $$\frac{d Q^N}{dQ}=\frac{N_T/N_0}{M_T/M_0}$$
Then, by using the abstract Bayes' Rule it can be shown that $S(t)$ is a martingale under $Q^N$ when priced in terms of the new numéraire, $N(t)$:
$$ E_{Q^N}\left[\left.\frac{S(T)}{N(T)}\right| \mathcal{F}(t)\right] $$ $$= E_{Q}\left[\left.\frac{M(0)}{M(T)}\frac{N(T)}{N(0)}\frac{S(T)}{N(T)}\right| \mathcal{F}(t)\right]/ E_Q\left[\left.\frac{M(0)}{M(T)}\frac{N(T)}{N(0)}\right| \mathcal{F}(t)\right] $$ $$ = \frac{M(t)}{N(t)}E_{Q}\left[\left.\frac{S(T)}{M(T)}\right| \mathcal{F}(t)\right] = \frac{M(t)}{N(t)}\frac{S(t)}{M(t)} = \frac{S(t)}{N(t)} $$
<< end of wiki--