Consider a Monte Carlo (MC) approximation to a European call with BS parameters $r = 0.05, \sigma = 0.4, T = 10, S_0 = 50$ and $K = 95$. Consider the following results, each using 1M points:
- plain MC: $\$21.6901 \pm \$0.1735$
- importance sampling with the sampling mean of $S_T = K$: $\$21.7161 \pm \$0.1511$
- importance sampling with the sampling median of $S_T = K$: $\$21.8104 \pm \$0.0650$
- importance sampling with the sampling mode of $S_T = K$: $\$21.7801 \pm \$0.0210$
where the $\pm$ is a 95% confidence interval. The BS price is $\$21.7766$.
It seems that setting the sampling mode of $S_T$ to $K$ offers the greatest variance reduction, but is this a general rule?
I am actually a bit suspicious of importance sampling because when I use more "reasonable" parameters, importance sampling sometimes increases the variance. Indeed, again with 1M points but using $r = 0.05, \sigma = 0.2, T = 1, S_0 = 50$ and $K = 50$ I get
- plain MC: $\$5.2192 \pm \$0.0144$
- importance sampling with the sampling mean of $S_T = K$: $\$5.2162 \pm \$0.0197$
- importance sampling with the sampling median of $S_T = K$: $\$5.2133 \pm \$0.0173$
- importance sampling with the sampling mode of $S_T = K$: $\$5.2207 \pm \$0.0136$
with BS price $\$5.2253$.
For plain vanillas, is there a good rule on how to pick the sampling distribution? (plain vanillas because they are more tractable for me :))