I am self-studying for an actuarial exam on models for financial economics. I am having a hard time grasping the concept highlighted in red:
I was wondering if someone could further elaborate on why there is an implicit put option that is lost when one early exercises an American call.
I tried making a concrete example for myself to demonstrate this using a binomial tree model constructed on forward prices, but using different interest rates, volatility, dividend yields, and times to expiration, I could never create a scenario where:
- Early exercise of the American call is rational at a node
- The stock price could decrease below the strike price at a subsequent node from the node that the stock is exercised early
But, let's just suppose we have an American call on a stock with strike $K$ expiring at time $T$, $C(S, K, T)$, and that it is rational to early exercise at $t < T$. Suppose that at time $T$, $S < K$.
Then at time $t$, the call holder exchanges $K$ for $S$, for a payoff of $S - K > 0$. But at time $T$, $S < K$, and so he now has $S - K < 0$. If he had not exercised early, he could have not exercised at expiration and in this case he would have $K > 0$.
A put option's payoff at time $T$ would be $\max{(K - S, 0)} > 0$, since $ S < K$.
I'm not seeing an implicit put here, since the payoffs are different. Could someone explain?