Suppose an asset follows the SDE
$$ d S_{t}^{1} = \mu S_{t}^{1} dt + \sigma_{t} S_{t}^{1} d W_{t} $$ Furthermore assume that $r = 0$ and a trader who uses Black-Scholes for pricing and hedging with volatility $\sigma^*$ for a terminal value claim with payoff $h(S_T)$. Then the price of the claim under BS is given as the solution of the PDE
$$ h_t^BS(t,S) + \frac{1}{2} (\sigma^*)^2 S^2 h_{SS}^{BS}(t,S_t^1) = 0 $$
with $h_t^BS(t,S) = h(S)$.
The tracking error of his hedge is then given by
$$e_T = h(S_t) - V_T $$
It can be shown that in this case it is equal to
$$ e_T = \frac{1}{2} \int_0^T ( S_{t}^{1})^2 (\sigma_t^2 - \sigma^*) h_{SS}^{BS}(t,S_t^1) dt $$
Now suppose that the trader sells a plain vanilla call option and replicates this option with a stock postion equal to the delta of the call. Hence, at this time point $t$ he is delta neutral.
Now suppose the true volatility $\sigma_t^2$ is bigger than the volatility $\sigma^*$ he used for replication. According to the formula $(\sigma_t^2 - \sigma^*) > 0 $ and the gamma of the position is $$h_{SS}^{BS}(t,S_t^1) > 0 $$ Hence, $$e_T > 0$$ and the trader makes a loss.
From an intuitive stand point this is clear for me - the trader is short a call option which has a convex payoff - for a large move of $S_t$ the option will gain more value than this hedging portfolio and since he is short the option he will have a loss. However, it is not clear for me why $$h_{SS}^{BS}(t,S_t^1) > 0 $$ - the call option has a positive gamma since again it has a convex payoff but he is $\textbf{short}$ the option hence the gamma would be negative as far as I see.