I am trying to understand and implement the standard 'marginal risk contribution' approach to portfolio risk and hoping to reconcile the formulae provided for its calculation in different sources. Specifically I am trying to understand the difference of these two papers:
- Page 4 of this paper by Roncalli (http://thierry-roncalli.com/download/erc.pdf)
- Pages 2-3 of this paper by Kazemi (http://people.umass.edu/kazemi/An%20Introduction%20to%20Risk%20Parity.pdf)
What I'd really like more help understanding is:
1) on page 2 of the Kazemi PDF, where MC1 is defined, how is this partial derivative of the portfolio vol with respect to w1 taken? (how does the square root of the portfolio vol disappear and how does the portfolio vol appear in the denominator)
2) how does the alternative formulation of MC in terms of the covariance between the asset and the portfolio (page 3 of Kazemi - "beta") get derived? ideally, looking for a step-by-step guide which illuminates how MC can be thought of in this way