We know how the formula of an instantaneous forward LIBOR rate looks like:
\begin{eqnarray} L(t, t, T) = \frac{1}{\Delta}\left(\frac{1}{P(t, T)} -1\right) \end{eqnarray} where $P(t, T)$ stands for the zero-coupon bond price at time $t$, with $T$ being the maturity time (the time at which our contract is terminated). Mathematically, the corresponding relation is given by:
\begin{eqnarray} P(t, T) = \mathbb{E}^{\mathbb{Q}}[D(t, T) | \mathcal{F}_t] \end{eqnarray} where the expectation is taken with respect to a risk-netral measure equivalent to the real-world measure $\mathbb{P}$, and $D(t, T)$ is the discount factor between $t$ and $T$ (Let's say it is characterized by a CIR model).
My question here is: what if we want to write a formulation for the instantaneous forward LIBOR rate under the real-world measure $\mathbb{P}$. More precisely, suppose that we specify by $P^{A}(t, T)=\mathbb{E}^{\mathbb{P}}[D(t, T)| \mathcal{F}_t]$ the actuarial value of a zero-coupon bond at time t with maturity time T, and $\Delta = T-t$. Then, is it still possible to write down
\begin{eqnarray} L(t, t, T) = \frac{1}{\Delta}\left(\frac{1}{P^{A}(t, T)} -1\right) \end{eqnarray}
Please let me know what you think. Thank you in advance.