I'm studying a draft of the paper “Dealing with the Inventory Risk: A solution to the market making problem” by Guéant et al from July 2012.
According to the paper, the closed form solution to the optimal control problem is:
$ \delta_{\infty}^{b *}(q) \simeq\frac{1}{\gamma} \ln \left(1+\frac{\gamma}{k}\right)+\frac{2 q+1}{2} \sqrt{\frac{\sigma^2 \gamma}{2 k A}\left(1+\frac{\gamma}{k}\right)^{1+\frac{k}{\gamma}}} $
and
$ \delta_{\infty}^{a *}(q) \simeq \frac{1}{\gamma} \ln \left(1+\frac{\gamma}{k}\right)-\frac{2 q-1}{2} \sqrt{\frac{\sigma^2 \gamma}{2 k A}\left(1+\frac{\gamma}{k}\right)^{1+\frac{k}{\gamma}}}. $
Now assume:
$ A = 0.9, k = 0.3, \sigma = 0.3 , \gamma = 0.01, q = 0. $
as also shown in the screenshot below from the paper:
I understand the above process but what are the units of the parameters in the solution and $\delta$?
If the parameters’ units are based on the price, we have the same sizes of $\delta^{a,b}$ regardless of the stock price being large or small and that is weird. And yet, if the units are based on tick, Brownian motion, $dS_t = \sigma dW_t$, can't be calculated well.