I am simulating a spread option with stochastic volatility using Monte Carlo simulation. I have the positive-definite covariance matrix $$ \rho = \left( \begin{array}{cccc} 1 & \rho_{1,2} & \rho_{1,3} & \rho_{1,4} \\ \rho_{2,1} & 1 & \rho_{2,3} & \rho_{2,4} \\ \rho_{3,1} & \rho_{3,2} & 1 & \rho_{3,4}\\ \rho_{4,1} & \rho_{4,2} & \rho_{4,3} & 1 \end{array} \right) $$
which by definition can be decomposed into the product of two matrixes through Cholesky decomposition in the following way: $$ \rho = L L^T $$ where $T$ indicates the transposed matrix.
In the literature, this factorization renders a system of equations of the form: $$ x_1 = z_1 \\ x_2 = \rho_{1,2} z_1 + \sqrt{1 - \rho_{1,2}^2z_2} \\ x_3 = ... $$
My question is the following. Why do we ignore the matrix $L^T$ when writing the final equations for the random deviates? Why isn't this approach leading to wrong equations, given that we are 'ignoring' part of the system? It seems like we are forgetting half of the problem.
I know this is the correct way to compute random deviates, but I would like to know the reason why this approach works.