# Does higher vega imply higher IV and vice versa

If an option A has higher vega than option B, does that also mean that A has a higher IV than B?
I understand that by definition, a higher vega means that A's price is more sensitive to its IV than B.

But can we conclude that A has higher IV than B also?

## 2 Answers

Simply put, no. Vega depends on a variety of factors (including the level/price of the underlying asset). However, vomma/volga/vega convexity (whatever you want to call dVega/dIV) is always positive. So as IV increases, the vega of an option increases - I think this might have been what you were getting at.

It's important to understand that IV is an input to a pricing model while the greeks are the sensitivity of options prices to various input factors (as @vonjd correctly states).

• "So as IV increases, the vega of an option increases"...yes this was my question. Thank you Commented Feb 26, 2015 at 17:41
• Why is vega convexity (=vol gamma = volga) always positive?
– AFK
Commented Feb 27, 2015 at 19:28
• dVega/dIV is NOT always positive! In particular, for an at-the-money option it is slightly negative. Commented Mar 20, 2015 at 15:13

IV is one of the inputs for your option pricing model, vega measures the actual impact (e.g. in Dollars, Euros...) of any change in IV.

Intuitively IV is the price of the option while vega is the sensitivity to IV.

Bottom line: There is a clear distinction!