I'm reading about Markov pricing kernels in the lecture notes of a course I'm following, but I have a big doubt on an application of Ito's lemma. The setting is the following:
We define the pricing kernel as $$ \xi_t = \xi(D_t,y_t,t) = e^{\int_0^t \delta(D_s,y_s)ds} T(D_t,y_t), \qquad \xi_0=1 $$ where $D$ and $y$ are Ito processes following the dynamics $$ dD_t = m(D_t,y_t)dt + \sigma(D_t,y_t) dW_{1t} $$ and $$ dy_t = \varphi(y_t)dt + v_1(y_t) dW_{1t} + v_2(y_t) dW_{2t} $$ Moreover, we assume the pricing kernel follows the dynamics $$ \frac{d\xi_t}{\xi_t} = -R_t dt -\lambda_{1t} dW_{1t}-\lambda_{2t} dW_{2t} $$
Now, the claim in the lecture notes is that by applying the Ito's lemma to $\xi_t$, one finds $$ R(D,y) = \delta(D,y) - \frac{\mathscr{L} T(D,y)}{T(D,y)}, $$ where $\mathscr{L}$ is the infinitesimal generator.
Now, I can see that this result can be obtained - rather trivially - in the case where the function $\delta$ in the integral is not dependent on $D$ and $y$. But in the case the dependence is there (as stated in the lecture notes), the drift obtained with Ito takes a much more complex form, and I really don't see any cancelling of the terms.
Do you agree with me - and thus there's a typo in my lecture notes - or am I applying Ito in the wrong way?