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This question already has an answer here:

I have been looking for a good intuitive reasoning for introduction of the risk neutral measure and its uses in quantitative finance, but I have yet to find one. I was wondering if any one could answer this question or possibly provide resources to do so.

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marked as duplicate by Bob Jansen Apr 7 '15 at 16:33

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

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    $\begingroup$ I'm pretty sure I've seen the same questions asked here. Do a search and you'll see. Basically, risk-neural measure is a fake world where the probability is different to our real world. We do this to discount a payoff with the risk-free rate. $\endgroup$ – SmallChess Apr 6 '15 at 5:33
  • $\begingroup$ I feel that the question referenced answers this quite well, but maybe not perfectly. Maybe it does not and in that case we can probably improve this question given the new understanding gained from that discussion. $\endgroup$ – Bob Jansen Apr 7 '15 at 16:33