From Hull's Options, Futures, and Other Derivatives, 8th ed., problem 4.23:
Excerpt from Problem 4.23
The cash prices of six-month and one-year Treasury bills are 94.0 and 89.0 ... Calculate the six-month, one-year ... zero rates.
Working out the six-month zero rate first, I understand that
$$\frac {6}{94} = 0.06383 \text{, or } 6.383\text{% in six months}$$
Thus, the six-month zero rate is
$$2 \times 6.383 \cong 12.766\text{% per annum (semi-annual compounding)}$$ $$2 \times \ln{(1 + 0.06383)} \cong 0.1238 \text{, or }12.38\text{% per annum (continuous compounding)}$$
But it is the following calculuation for the 12-month rate that puzzles me:
$$\frac {11}{89} = 0.12360 \text{, or }12.36\text{% per annum (annual compounding)}$$
Why 11 for the numerator, and not 12, when calculating the 12-month rate?