I have two different event study approaches and I wonder if the results are exactly the same.
Model 1 applies a dummy regression market model:
(1) $R_{t}=\beta_{0} + \beta_{1}R_{mt}+\beta_{2}D_{t}+\epsilon_{t}$
where ${R}_{t}$ is the return of a company at time t, $R_{mt}$ is the market return at time t and $D_{t}$ is a dummy variable that equals one in the event window and 0 otherwise. As far as I know: the coefficient $\beta_{2}$ signals the abnormal return of the event.
Model 2 applies a market model and then the dummy regression on its residuals:
(2.1) $R_{t}=\beta_{0} + \beta_{1}R_{mt}+u_{t}$
(2.2) $\hat{u}_{t}=\gamma_{0} + \gamma_{1}D_{t}+\epsilon_{t}$
Here is $D_t$ the measure for the abnormal return.
My question is: Does it make any difference to apply Model 1 or Model 2? Is the interpretation of the abnormal return measures exactly the same in both models?
Thanks for your help!