Let's say that I have two correlated GBMs:
$$dA_t = A_t \sigma^A dW^A_t$$ $$dR_t = R_t \sigma^R dW^R_t$$ $$dW^R_t dW^A_t = \rho dt$$
I am trying to price a derivative which payoff at time $T$ is:
$$\text{Payoff}_T = (A_TR_T - A_T \lambda)^+ $$
My idea was to apply Margrabe's formula, but for this I need to formulate the two processes $X_t = A_t R_t$ and $Y_t = \lambda A_t$ as GBMs as well in order to find their respective volatilities and their correlation.
The first one is quite trivial:
$$dY_t = d(\lambda A_t) = \lambda dA_t + \frac{1}{2} 0 = \lambda A_t \sigma^A dW^A_t = dY_t \sigma^A dW^A_t$$
which is clearly a GBM and $\sigma_Y = \sigma^A$.
But I'm a struggling to express the second one, what I came up with so far is:
$$ \begin{align} d(A_t R_t) & = & A_t dR_t + R_t dA_t + dA_tdR_t \\ & = & A_t R_t \sigma^R dW^R_t + A_t R_t \sigma^A dW^A_t + A_t R_t \sigma^R \sigma^A \underbrace{dW^A_t dW^R_t}_{\rho dt} \\ & = & A_t R_t \left[ \sigma^R dW^R_t + \sigma^A dW^A_t + \sigma^R \sigma^A \rho dt \right] \end{align}$$
But this is where I'm stuck, I can't figure out how to express this as a "simple" GBM as it's quite clearly multivariate... Am I missing something?
Is there a way I can still use the Margrabe formula to price my option?