I am trying to computing the price of an option at time $t$, with payoff $X = \frac{S_{T_2}}{S_{T_1}}$, at time $T_2$, where $t < T_1 < T_2$.
Here how I compute it:
Using the forward measure $Q_{T_2}$ with settlement date $T_2$, price at $t$ is $$P_{t,T_2}E_{Q_{T_2}}\left(\frac{S_{T_2}}{S_{T_1}}| \mathcal{F}_t\right),$$ where $P_{t,T_2}$ is the price of a discount bond at $t$ maturing at $T_2$.
By the law of iterated expectation, and using the fact that price process $h_t/P_{t,T2}$ is a martingale for any contingent claim with payoff $H$ at $T_2$, I get, $$P_t = P_{t,T_2}E_{Q_{T_2}}\left(\frac{1}{S_{T_1}} \frac{S_{T_1}}{P_{T_1,T2}}| \mathcal{F}_t\right) = P_{t,T_2} E_{Q_{T_2}}\left(\frac{1}{P_{T_1,T2}}| \mathcal{F}_t\right) =P_{t,T_2} \frac{1}{P_{t,T2}} =1 $$
I find this result rather surprising (maybe because it is wrong?). If anybody has another answer or can come up with an intuitive justification of such result. I would be glad to get some insight.