I am working with the stochastic volatility model with jumps in both the price and volatility dynamics, ie. the risk neutral dynamics are of the form: $$\mathrm{d}V_t = \kappa(\theta - V_t)\mathrm{d}t + \sigma \sqrt{V_t} \mathrm{d}B_t^v + J^v \mathrm{d} N_t \\ \mathrm{d}S_t = (r_t-d_t-\lambda m^j)S_t\mathrm{d}t + \sqrt{V_t} S\mathrm{d}B_t^s + (e^{J^s}-1)S_t \mathrm{d}N_t,$$
where $\text{Corr}(B_t^v,B_t^s) = \rho$, and the jump distributions are $J^v\sim \exp(\mu_v)$ and $J^s \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu_s,\sigma^2)$. I have calibrated the model to a data set with European Call and Put options on SPX, and now I want to derive at a closed form expression of the expected value of the annualized realized variance, that is $\mathbb{E}[1/T \int_0^Tv_t \mathrm{d}t]$.
My first thought was simply that it is equal to the calibrated value of $V_0$ but this is based on a martingale assumption of the integral which I am not sure is correct. How would I compute the expectation if it is not a martingale? If it indeed is a martingale, how would I prove it?