Why do counterparty risk pricing adjustments need be considered in a bilateral counterparty risk perspective?
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If each party uses unilateral CCR model, i.e. Only takes into account the other party's probability of default, they are much less likely to agree on a price and actually trade.
In general, you want to take your own default into account simply because it is market observable through cds and bond spreads. And because it will affect your funding.