I've used the SVI model in the past for equity option which worekd quite well. I came across a post on Wilmott where someone said hes using SVI for swaption as well. I would like to test the model and fit it to swaption implied volatitilities (normal). However, there are markets where the forward swap rate goes negative and in the original paper Gatheral and Jacquier they use the moneyness $\log(\frac{K}{F_0})$, where $F_0$ is the forward swap rate. This is not defined for negative rates. Are you aware of any study for the SVI for fixed income? How else can we deal with negative rates in this case?
Since the model is not really based on any assumption on the underlying like in a SABR model we could change this. However, I'm not sure if there is any theoretical constraints on doing this.