I have an expectation given as: $\mathbb{E}\left(S_{T}\mathbb{1}_{S_{T}\geq K} \right)$
where $K$ is just an arbitrary number (i.e. the strike price, but that's unimportant) and $S$ can be modelled by the equation $S_{t} = \exp((r-\frac{1}{2})t + \sigma W_{t})$. Also, the expectation is under the $\mathbb{P}$-measure, not the $\mathbb{Q}$-measure, so effectively this expectation is $\mathbb{E}^{\mathbb{P}}\left(S_{T}\mathbb{1}_{S_{T}\geq K} \right)$
Now, when trying to evaluate $\mathbb{E}\left(\mathbb{1}_{S_{T}\geq K} \right)$ under the $\mathbb{Q}$-measure, then solving this expectation is fairly easy, since you can integrate the SDE and take the $\log$ of $S$ to get $\log(S_{T}) = \log(S_{0}) + (r-\frac{1}{2})T + \sigma\sqrt{T}N(0,1)$ (since $W_{t}\approx \sqrt{T}N(0,1)$) and thus we have for $\mathbb{E}\left(\mathbb{1}_{S_{T}\geq K} \right) = \mathbb{P}({S_{T}\geq K})$:
$\log(S_{T}) = (r-\frac{1}{2})T + \sigma\sqrt{T}N(0,1) > \log(K)$ and thus rearranging this equation gives
$N(0,1) > \frac{\log(K/S_{0}) - (r-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^{2})T}{\sigma\sqrt{T}}$
and through a little bit more rearrangement (i.e. knowing that $N(0,1)<-x = 1 - N(x)$ we get finally $d_{2} = \frac{(r-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^{2})T + \log(S_{0}/K)}{\sigma\sqrt{T}}$ and thus $\mathbb{E}\left(\mathbb{1}_{S_{T}\geq K} \right) = N(d_{2})$.
The problem I have now however is that I'm a bit unsure how to find $\mathbb{E}^{\mathbb{P}}\left(S_{T}\mathbb{1}_{S_{T}\geq K} \right)$ (i.e. under the $\mathbb{P}$-measure) since I've never done any measure theory before, so if someone could help me out I'd really appreciate it. Thanks in advance.