0
$\begingroup$

is there anyone who can explain the concept of spread duration, both from a mathematical point of view and an intuitive one? Providing a practical example would be highly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

$\endgroup$
5
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Have you read this papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=956825 ? Have you searched this forum for previous questions identical to yours ? $\endgroup$
    – nbbo2
    Commented Nov 21, 2016 at 15:40
  • $\begingroup$ Spread duration is a bond's price sensitivity to spread changes. $\endgroup$
    – user16651
    Commented Nov 21, 2016 at 16:09
  • $\begingroup$ @noob2 Yes, I have. But it seemed to me that open topics didn't match my question. In any case, sorry for being redundant. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 23, 2016 at 8:41
  • $\begingroup$ Presuming he doesn't mean Duration Times Spread, measure of corp bond excess return .... $\endgroup$
    – rrg
    Commented Nov 24, 2016 at 22:03
  • $\begingroup$ @rrg Not at all, you are right. My question was much more basic... $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 28, 2016 at 8:26

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

will try and describe a simplified mathematical description, and hopefully some of it will be intuitive :)

I am going to use a definition of spread duration used throughout credit markets at least - this may not be what you are getting at so do let me know if this is the case.

Spread duration is a risky duration, that is, the survival probability adjusted discount factor - weighted present value of a one basis point annuity / coupon paid on the bond. (This is almost the same things as price sensitivity, at least to a first order approximation as we'll see).

Spread duration or risky present value of a basis point is given by: $PV_{BP_{risky}} = \displaystyle{\int_0^Tc_t\,\mathbb{P}(\tau\geq t)}D_{0,t}\mathrm{dt} =\int_0^T{c_te^{\int_0^t{\lambda_sds}}e^{\int_0^t{r_sds}}\mathrm{dt}}$

where $D_{0,t}$ is the credit riskless discount, $c_t$ is the coupon stream (assumed continuous for simplicity) pf 1bp and $\mathbb{P}(\tau\geq t)$ is the $t$ survival probability. Please note - to make things simple I am assuming here that credit and rates are uncorrelated - in many applications this is NOT suitable. Am also ignoring accrued for clarity of exposition.

Let's now make things even simpler and assume a flat hazard rate and flat interest rate 'curve'. We then have simply that:

$\displaystyle{PV_{BP_{risky}} =\int_0^T{e^{(\lambda+r)t}\mathrm{dt}} }=\left\{\frac{1-e^{(\lambda+r)T}}{\lambda+r}\right\}$

This is a nice 'quick and dirty' formula for the risky duration which is surprisingly useful for calculating CDS MTMs or CR01 (which latter is the PV change. Now, let's have a look at a CDS MTM:

$PV_{CDS}=PV_{loss\,leg}-PV_{premium\,leg} =(1-R)\int_0^T{\lambda e^{(\lambda+r)t}\mathrm{dt}} -\kappa\int_0^T{e^{(\lambda+r)t}\mathrm{dt}}$

The loss leg integrand houses the survival density, $\kappa$ is the CDS premium or strike as it's often called, and the whole thing reduces to the familiar:

$PV_{CDS}=\{\lambda(1-R)-\kappa\}\cdot\left\{\frac{1-e^{(\lambda+r)T}}{\lambda+r}\right\}$

This is just $(par\,spread - strike)*risky\,duration$

Given this we can see that for CDS, a 1bp move in the spread does indeed deflect the MTM by one unit of the spread duration, but for the fact that the duration is negatively convex for a bought protection position. As the hazard rate widens, the risky duration shortens. A name moving from say 100bp to 500bp can easily lose 15% of its delta on say a 5y CDS struck at 1%, which is material.

Finally then just to write down a simple formula in a similar vein for a risky bond, we have:

$\displaystyle{PV_{risky\,bond} =\kappa\int_0^T{e^{(\lambda+r)t}\mathrm{dt}} +e^{-(\lambda+r)T}+R\int_0^T{\lambda e^{(\lambda+r)t}\mathrm{dt}}}$

This is risky coupon + principal on survival + recovery on default (integrated against density again). The quick and dirty formula here is:

$PV_{risky\,bond}=\{\kappa+R\lambda\}\cdot\left\{\frac{1-e^{(\lambda+r)T}}{\lambda+r}\right\}+e^{-(\lambda+r)T}$

Once again you can see the risky duration term, enclosed in $\{\cdot\}$ making an appearance, however this time we have a different default payoff of $R$ and not $1-R$, together with a term survival principal.

Hope that's a helpful summary of some simplified credit pricing showing where spread duration crops up. The reduced form formulae are handy for playing around with in a spreadsheet. Probably ridden with typos I'm afraid so caveat lector, cheers!

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.