I am self-studying and I am working on the following problem:
My solution is different and I'm arriving at a different answer:
The parameters of the lognormal random variable $S_t/S_0$ are: $$m = \mu t = (\alpha - \delta - 0.5\sigma^2)t$$ and $$v = \sigma\sqrt{t},$$ where $\alpha$ is the stock's continuously compounded rate of return, $\sigma$ is the stock's annual volatility, and $t = \frac{1}{250}$.
Then we have $m = (\alpha - 0.5\sigma^2)/250$ and $v = \sigma\sqrt{1/250}$.
Therefore:
$40e^{m + z_1v} = 40e^{(\alpha - 0.5\sigma^2)/250 + 1.18\sigma\sqrt{1/250}} = 40.866$
and
$40.866e^{m + z_2v} = 40e^{(\alpha - 0.5\sigma^2)/250 - 0.53\sigma\sqrt{1/250}} = 40.519.$
This gives us the system of equations:
$(\alpha - 0.5\sigma^2)/250 + 1.18\sigma\sqrt{1/250} = \ln(40.886/40)$
and
$(\alpha - 0.5\sigma^2)/250 - 0.53\sigma\sqrt{1/250} = \ln(40.519/40.866).$
Solving yields $\alpha = 0.2666063$ and $\sigma = 0.281421201$.
It appears to me that the author is starting with the lognormal parameters already in terms of 1 day, and then converting to the annual return/volatility at the end. I am starting with the annual lognormal parameters, converting to daily, and then solving for the annual return/volatility.
If my reasoning is correct, I don't see why my solution wouldn't match the one using the author's method.