I have a very quick question. Suppose that I buy a European call option from party S with expiry $T$. I want to determine the general formula for the CVA of the option, at time $t$. If I let $T_1\leq T$ be the default time of $S$ and I denote by $\xi=S$ the default event of $S$ (I am following here the notation of Quantitative Risk Management by McNeil, Frey, Embrechts, Chapter 17), and I denote by $c(t,T)$ the risk-neutral, default-free (Black-Scholes) price of the option at time $t$, is the following formula correct: $$ CVA(t) = LGD\cdot\mathbb E^Q[\mathbb 1_{\{T_1\leq T\}}\cdot\mathbb 1_{\{\xi=S\}}D(t,T_1)c(T_1,T) |\mathcal F_t] ? $$
My point here is that the evaluation of the default-free expected cash flow of the option is just the price of the option at time $t$, and since this cannot be negative, the term $c(T_1,T)$ is always positive, so there's no need to take its positive part.
So is my formula above correct?