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In a recent book I read, the author mentioned the terminal condition

$$\mathop {\lim }\limits_{t \to T} V(S,t) = \max \left\{ {X - S,0} \right\}$$

 This is intuitive to understand. Then he defines $$\tau  \equiv T - t$$ and when $r>0$, the terminal condition above can be simplified as

$$\mathop {\lim }\limits_{\tau  \to 0} V(S,\tau) = 0$$

in the range $${\Sigma _1} = \left\{ {(S,\tau )|B(\tau ) \le S < + \infty ,0 \le \tau \le T} \right\}$$

This is not so intuitive . How can the value of the option be equal to zero in this case?

@Update: The book is " Homotopy Analysis Method in Nonlinear Differential Equations" p. 432

$B(\tau ) $= optimal exercise boundary

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    $\begingroup$ This doesn't seem to make sense. Can you provide the reference? $\endgroup$ – LocalVolatility Jan 22 '17 at 22:40
  • $\begingroup$ This makes no sense, it say the payoff is zero as the option approach maturity. Can you double check. $\endgroup$ – SmallChess Jan 23 '17 at 5:11
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    $\begingroup$ Could you also provide a reference? $\endgroup$ – Bob Jansen Jan 25 '17 at 9:48
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    $\begingroup$ Assuming $B(\tau)$ figures the optimal exercice boundary when the time to expiry is $\tau$ which is still not completely clear, i.e. $B(\tau)$ is such that: $$B(\tau) = \text{argmax}_B \left\{ (X-B) \geq \Bbb{E}^\Bbb{Q} \left[ e^{-r\tau} (X-S_T)^+ \mid S_{T-\tau}=B \right] \right\} $$ then because $B(\tau) \to X$ in the limit as $\tau \to 0$, your put option is OTM in the range $\Sigma_1$ when $\tau \to 0$. $\endgroup$ – Quantuple Jan 25 '17 at 11:46
  • $\begingroup$ I think @Quantuple answers it. Basically, it means as your spot price is too high, the payoff is zero as it approaches to maturity. $\endgroup$ – SmallChess Jan 26 '17 at 6:27
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It looks like r = S - X, or the strike price - stock price. Basically, if r > 0, the put is out of the money and becomes worthless as it goes to expiration.

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  • $\begingroup$ But $S-X$ is not the same as $\max(S-X,0)$ $\endgroup$ – noob2 Jan 23 '17 at 18:56
  • $\begingroup$ If you're long the put, you can't lose more than the debit, thus V >= 0. $\endgroup$ – MatthewM Jan 24 '17 at 2:51
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    $\begingroup$ This is not an answer, it's just a guess of the question. We don't know from the question we're talking about OTM American. $\endgroup$ – SmallChess Jan 24 '17 at 2:59
  • $\begingroup$ The limit holds for both American and European-style options, in and out of the money. As τ goes to zero, the values of American and Euro options converge, since they both can be exercised at expiration. $\endgroup$ – MatthewM Jan 24 '17 at 12:34
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    $\begingroup$ I am with @StudentT on this. You cannot credibly answer the question without knowing the original reference. Everything else is just guessing what the notation might mean. $\endgroup$ – LocalVolatility Jan 24 '17 at 13:42

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