I just read the following and i am having some difficulty to interpret it:
We begin our analysis in the standard Black-Scholes world consisting of a bank account process of price denoted by $B_t$, and a risky stock process $S_t$, both defined on a filtered probability space $(0, \mathbb{F}, \mathfrak{F}_t, \mathbb{P})$, with the filtration $\mathfrak{F}_t$ generated by the standard Brownian motion $W_t$. Both asset processes are therefore adapted to the filtration $\mathfrak{F}_t$, with local dynamics shown below \begin{eqnarray} \mathrm{d}S_t & = & \mu S_t \mathrm{d}t + \sigma S_t \mathrm{d}W_t,\\ \mathrm{d}B_t & = & r B_t \mathrm{d}t. \end{eqnarray}
The problem is the last sentence in connection with the two equations?
Update: How is $B_t$ adapted to the same filtration $\mathfrak{F}_t$ as $S_t$ since $B_t$ is not driven by any Brownian motion?