I'm getting confused about how I should price the current price of a zero coupon bond when there are several yields to choose from. For instance, lets say that there is an upward sloping yield curve. The rates are $r_1 < r_2 < \cdots < r_{10}$.
Typically, when we price the current price of zero coupon bond that matures in 1 year, the calculation is simply $$ P = \frac{100}{1 + r_1} $$ However, when we price the current price of a 10 year zero coupon bond, I feel that it is overly simplistic to calculate the price as $$ P = \frac{100}{(1+r_{10})^{10}} $$ Rather, I feel that the correct way to price this is to think the rates as forward rates for each year so that $$ P = \frac{100}{(1+r_1)(1+r_2) \cdots (1+r_{10})} $$
Any input will be much appreciated. Thanks in advance.