0
$\begingroup$

Suppose we have $n$ assets, each of which has weight $w_i$ in the portfolio. The log return of asset $i$ is denoted by $r_i$.

What's the intuition why this holds approximately:

$$ ln \left( \sum_i w_i e^{r_{i,t}}\right) \approx \sum_i w_i r_{i,t} $$

$\endgroup$
0

1 Answer 1

4
$\begingroup$

The above relation really only approximately. If you consider arithmetic retunrs then it is exact.

For the approximation you just need to look at the Taylor series of the exponential: $$ e^x = 1 + x + \text{ terms of higher order}. $$ These terms of higher order ($x^2$ and $x^3$) become small if $x$ is much smaller than one - which holds true for returns. Thus $$ \sum_i w_i e^{r_i} \approx \sum_i w_i ( 1+ r_i) = 1 + \sum_i w_i r_i, $$ if $\sum_i w_i = 1$.

Then conside that $\ln(1+x) \approx x$ (you can check here) and you are done:

$$ \ln \left(1 + \sum_i w_i r_i \right) \approx \sum_i w_i r_i. $$

$\endgroup$
1
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ Just to add that the approximation works well for x within +-10% - see e.g. wolframalpha.com/input/… $\endgroup$
    – rbm
    Commented Apr 28, 2017 at 9:35

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.