I've always been confused with Delta hedging. It is well-known that for a (smooth enough) function of $(S,t)$ we have, due to Ito's lemma, that: \begin{eqnarray*} dC = \left(\frac{\partial C}{\partial t} (S,t) + \mu S \frac{\partial C}{\partial S} (S,t) + \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 S^2 \frac{\partial^2 C}{\partial S^2}(S,t)\right)dt + \sigma S \frac{\partial C}{\partial S} (S,t) dX \end{eqnarray*} (source here, where $X$ is the standard Brownian motion). The author then proceeds to show that if we choose $\Delta = -\frac{\partial C}{\partial S} (S,t)$, then we will have \begin{align*} d(C+\Delta S) &= \left(\frac{\partial C}{\partial t} (S,t) + \mu S \frac{\partial C}{\partial S} (S,t) + \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 S^2 \frac{\partial^2 C}{\partial S^2}(S,t) + \Delta \mu S\right) dt\\ &+ \sigma S \left(\frac{\partial C}{\partial S}+\Delta\right) dX\\ &=\left(\frac{\partial C}{\partial t}(S,t) + \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 S^2 \frac{\partial^2 C}{\partial S^2}(S,t)\right)dt \end{align*} (I've corrected the author's typo and replaced the term $ \Delta S (\frac{\partial C}{\partial S}+\Delta) dX$ in the formula above with the correct one $\sigma S (\frac{\partial C}{\partial S}+\Delta) dX$ )
I understand the usual procedure of $\Delta$, but I never understand how $\Delta$ can be defined as $-\frac{\partial C}{\partial S} (S,t)$. By definition a hedging strategy must be a predictable process, is there any justification that $\Delta$ given as above is predictable, not merely adapted, to the filtration generated by the stock process?
Even if we accept the definition of $\Delta$, the author also doesn't explain how to compute $d(C+\Delta S)$. But, as far as I know, if $\Delta$ is really the symbol for $-\frac{\partial C}{\partial S} (S,t)$, then we will have $$d(\Delta S)=Sd(\Delta)+\Delta dS+(dS)\cdot(d\Delta).$$ And as for $d\Delta$, I think it's just replacing $C$ by $\Delta$ in the expression of $dC$, and the resulting $d(\Delta S)$ will be super-complicated with $\partial^3 C/\partial S^3$ present. What I obtained in the end was a horribe mess, the risky term $dX$ wasn't eliminated and the non-random term $dt$ doesn't match that in the BS PDE.
Wherein lies the problem?