If the probability distribution function $f(x)$ is not symmetric, is there any relationship between $VaR_{\alpha}(X)$ and $VaR_{1-\alpha}(X)$?
Here, $VaR$ is defined as $$ VaR_{\alpha}(X) := \inf\left\{x \in \mathbb{R}| Pr(X>x)\leq \alpha\right\}, \alpha \in [0, 1]. $$