# Log-moneyness definition [closed]

Define the time-0 log-moneyness of a call on stock $S$ with strike $K$ and expiry $T$ to be:

$$\log(S(0)\exp(rT)/K)$$

What does it mean for the strikes K to be at-the-log-moneyness?? I guessed this but i don't think it is right:

$$\log(K) = \log(S(0)\exp(rT)/K)$$