Consider the bond decribed by the following formula:

$$ 1000-\text{max}\left[0,1000 \;\text{min}\left(\frac{169}{S_T} -1,1\right)\right] $$

where $S_T$ is a yen-USD exchange rate at maturity;

So if $S_T$ is larger than $169$ yen/per USD the holder receives $1000$ USD while if $S_T<84.5$ then the holder receives nothing.

(This was ICON (index currency option notes) issued in 1995, according to the book, if anyone is interested).

I'm asked to show that this is a combination of two options and a bond. Now looking at the profit-maturity rate graph it sort of gives me the idea, as there are two "flat" parts of the graph (which probably is a result of combining two options) and the middle part connecting them comes from regular bond yield.

But I'm not sure how I would magically cook up the formula (for the derivatives involved. Or is there other way than that?) from just intuition alone. Also, I'm not entirely sure what's meant by "regular bond here". I'm quite new to all these financial concepts, so it'd be great if someone could give a significant hints towards the solution.

  • $\begingroup$ I guess you forgot a $\min$ somewhere in your formula, as the way it is written now would allow the payoff to be negative (take the case where $S_T = 169/4$ for instance), while you said that "if $S_T < 169/2 = 84.4$, the holder receives nothing". I guess the correct formula would be something like: $$1000 - \max\left[ 0, 1000 \left( \min \left(\frac{169}{S_T} - 1, 1\right) \right)\right]$$ Am I right? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 14, 2017 at 8:28
  • $\begingroup$ @JejeBelfort Yes, you are right.I basically copied the formula from the book, but book definitely says payoff is non-negative. After $84.5$, max part must be $0$ and your formula makes sense. $\endgroup$
    – user160738
    Commented Nov 14, 2017 at 8:32
  • $\begingroup$ Ok. I am about to write an answer. However, I end up with two options positions, no bonds. Are you sure there is a bond involved in the replicating strategy? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 14, 2017 at 14:43

1 Answer 1


Your payoff $\pi_T$ is the following:

$$ \pi_T = \left\{\begin{array} \\ 0 & & \text{if } S_T<84.5 \\ 2,000 - 169,000/S_T & & \text{if } 84.5 \leq S_T \leq 169 \\ 1,000 & & \text{if } S_T > 169 \end{array}\right.$$

Letting $N=1000$, $k_1=84.5$ and $k_2=169$, it can be written:

$$ \begin{align} \pi_T&=1_{\{k_1 \leq S_T \leq k_2\}}\left(2N-\frac{k_2N}{S_T}\right)+1_{\{k_2<S_T\}}N\\[6pt] &=k_2N\left(1_{\{k_1 \leq S_T \}}\left(\frac{1}{k_1}-\frac{1}{S_T}\right)+1_{\{k_2 \leq S_T \}}\left(\frac{1}{S_T}-\frac{1}{k_2}\right)\right) \\[6pt] &=k_2N\left(1_{\{\frac{1}{k_1} \geq S_T^{-1} \}}\left(\frac{1}{k_1}-S_T^{-1}\right)-1_{\{\frac{1}{k_2} \geq S_T^{-1} \}}\left(\frac{1}{k_2}-S_T^{-1}\right)\right) \\[6pt] &=k_2N\left(\max\left(0,\frac{1}{k_1}-S_T^{-1}\right)-\max\left(0,\frac{1}{k_2}-S_T^{-1}\right)\right) \end{align}$$

where $S_T^{-1}$ is the USDJPY FX rate. Therefore the payoff can be hedged by selling a put option on the USDJPY rate with strike $1/k_1$ and buying a put option on USDJPY with strike $1/k_2$ in quantities $k_2N$.

If you use a zero-coupon bond paying $1,000$ at maturity $T$ in your hedging strategy (as your questions specifies) then you still need two options similar to those above. But you do not really need it as there is no capital protection, i.e. under some scenarios $\pi_T=0$.

For a general methodology to address this type of static hedging questions, refer to the beginning of my answer to question "Finding arbitrage opportunity".

Note: an earlier comment I made on a digital call option was wrong.


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