I have been working with Bachelier model for some days but when I experimented with the model I saw some unwanted result with huge differences from the Black Scholes model. Bachelier model is described in detail here: Bachelier model call option pricing formula
Here is an numerical experiment: No interest rate; $\sigma=0.15$ for both models.
At time 0 I want to price a ATM European Call with $T=1$ and strike $K=55$ when $S_0=55$
The BS result: $C=3.29$
The Bachelier result: $C=0.06$
Why is there such a huge gap? I have tried to make sense of it by simply looking at the models but it is complicated with the CDFs and PDFs. Bachelier model is normally distributed and the BS model is log-normally distributed. Can we use that for explaining the big difference by claiming that the two processes is way different with the same volatility constant $\sigma$
The no Arbitrage pricing function for the Bachelier model with zero rate can be looked up a lot of places: $$ C_t = (S_t-K)*\Phi((S_t-K)/u)+v_t*\phi((S_t-K)/u) $$ where $u = \sigma \sqrt{T-t}$