At creation, the strike price $K$ of a futures contract is determined using the formula $$ K = S_0 e^{rT} $$ where $S_0$ is the price of the underlying asset at time $t=0$, $r$ is the risk-free interest rate, and $T$ is the time to maturity of the contract. Setting the strike price of the contract in this way ensures that it has a non-zero initial value.
My question is, in a real-world situation, is it possible for a domestic trader to sell am unfair futures contract with strike price $K < S_0 e^{rT}$ in exchange for an initial premium payable at time $t=0$?