Why is it stated sometimes that $C - P = F$
and in wikipedia it statest that $C - P = D(F-K)$, where D is the discount factor and K is the strike (of both the call and put?).
Is this just affected by whether the option is on a future or on spot?
Quantitative Finance Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for finance professionals and academics. It only takes a minute to sign up.
Sign up to join this communityWhy is it stated sometimes that $C - P = F$
and in wikipedia it statest that $C - P = D(F-K)$, where D is the discount factor and K is the strike (of both the call and put?).
Is this just affected by whether the option is on a future or on spot?