I am trying to value an option on N assets, say $S^1, S^2,..., S^N$ that expires in $\Delta T$ years using Monte Carlo simulation. I have read many sources that state I should use the following formula for each asset:
$S_T^i = S_0^i exp( (\mu_i - \sigma_i^2/2)\Delta T + \alpha_i\sigma_i\sqrt{\Delta T})$
Where:
- The $i$'s are used to differentiate the different assets.
- $S_t^i$ denotes the price of asset $S^i$ at time t.
- $(\alpha_1,...,\alpha_N)$ are derived by taking the Cholesky decomposition $LL^*$ of the "correlation matrix" and then applying it to N iid standard normal random variables $(\epsilon_i,...,\epsilon_N)$.
My questions are:
- Does the "correlation matrix" represent the correlations between the Assets or of the Asset returns?
- Does the Cholesky method simply accomplish drawing from multivariate normal distribution with mean $(0,...,0)$ and variance-covariance matrix of the answer to my first question?
Thank you in advance.