Is there a way to compute the DV01 of a bond future, from it's underlying cheapest to deliver bond's DV01?

For example, is this correct? : DV01 future = DV01 CTD / conversion factor?

Or any other formula that would give future's DV01?


1 Answer 1


Suppose the CTD DV01 is 10cents.
If the CTD yield falls by 1bp then price goes up by 10cents.
The price of the future (if the net basis remains at 0) will increase by: $$DV01.Future= (10 \times (1+repo*day.count.frac)) \div conv.factor$$ The repo is a small adjustment.

(See Helins comment about using the forward DV01 instead of repo-adjusted DV01)

  • 4
    $\begingroup$ Division is the correct way to go here. Also, instead of the repo adj, it's more direct and more precise to just calculate forward DV01? $\endgroup$
    – Helin
    Jun 7, 2018 at 22:00
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Yes agreed, that is better actually - its been a while since I plugged this formula in a spreadsheet! $\endgroup$
    – Attack68
    Jun 8, 2018 at 5:25
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Thank you. How do you compute the forward DV01? $\endgroup$
    – Sithered
    Jun 8, 2018 at 6:06
  • $\begingroup$ How do I compute the forward dv01? @Helin $\endgroup$
    – viki
    Nov 14 at 18:05
  • $\begingroup$ You work out the forward price of the bond and bump spot yields up by 1bp, then repo yields up by 1bp..the difference in prices is the dv01. For the fwd dv01 you have two different rates contributing to this..the repo rate and spot. $\endgroup$
    – user68819
    Nov 16 at 20:18

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