I have been reading about Sharpe's return-based style analysis, which tries to determine the manager's exposure/effective asset mix to changes in the values of the asset classes. It does so by using quadratic optimization (minimizing the variance of the manager return minus coefficient times returns of chosen asset classes).
My question is: 1) Does this analysis give the same/different interpretation as/from the multivariate linear regression model? 2) I want to answer this question: which sector had the biggest return and risk contribution to the market from t = t1 to t= t2? What percentage of total return and risk is coming from the TMT sector from t = t1 to t = t2? I have daily returns of MSCI ACWI (the world equity market index) and MSCI ACWI for all the sectors (tech, financials, health care, etc). Would Sharpe's return-based style analysis be a good method to answer those questions?