Textbooks usually state that if an asset's prices are positively correlated with interest rate movements, then its Futures price is going to be greater than its Forward Price assuming the same maturity.
The reasoning is that if you're long futures and the asset's prices increase along with interest rates, then you'll get to re-invest your gains at a higher rate. On the flip side during losses, you'll get to borrow at lower interest rates. This is not possible with forwards since they aren't marked-to-market daily. Hence, futures prices should exceed the forward price.
Does the logic hold from the short's perspective as well?