# Is positive skewness preferences rational or irrational?

Is positive skewness preference rational or irrational? I have a great trouble understanding why investors should prefer positive skewness over negative one. Sometimes it is argued that preference for positive skewness is a behavioral and consequently irrational phenomenon as stated here. And sometimes it is argued it can be justified by assumption of concave utility and risk –averse investors as stated here (the second answer). It is clear that in this regard this preference is perfectly rational. Now which interpretation is correct? An intuitive response would be highly appreciated.