While looking into fixing the $\beta$ parameter (based the following regression: $\text{ln } \sigma^{ATM}_t = \text{ln } \alpha - (1-\beta)\text{ln }F_t$, as explained in West (2004), page 6) before calibration of SABR to equity option market data, I found that inferred $\beta$'s are often negative. This was discussed in an existing question earlier (SABR beta range), and got some useful comments. Conclusion: SABR is unconditionally valid as long as $\beta<1$.
My question is; although SABR model is valid, is the Hagan approximate formula also still valid to use for negative $\beta$, why (not)?