Can anyone explain why the cost of carry formula looks like this:
$$F_0 = S_0 \cdot e^{(c-y)T}$$ ,where $S_0$ equals the spot price when $T=0$, i.e. today. $c$ denotes the cost of carry and $y$ the convenience yield(?).
So I want to know the mathematical proof of why the Futures function looks like it does. Also I don't really understand how you find the convenience yield and what it is, except that it is the premium you get from having the asset close to the production(?) so that you save time?