I am currently reading the book "Nonlinear Option Pricing" by Julien Guyon. In the book they defined an attainable payoff $F_T$ as a $\mathcal{F}_T$ measurable random variable for which there exists an admissible portfolio and a real number $z$ such that $$z+\int_0^T \Delta_s\mathrm{d}\tilde{X}_s+D_{0,T}F_T=0$$ and $\int_0^T\Delta_s\mathrm{d}\tilde{X}_t$ should be a true $Q$-martingale.( $D_{0,T}$ is the discount factor and $\tilde{X}$ is the discounted stock price.)
Next, they claim that the pair $z,\Delta_s$ is unique because suppose there is a $z',\Delta'_s$, then $$\int_0^T(\Delta_s-\Delta_s')\mathrm{d}\tilde{X}_s=z'-z$$.
Now since $\tilde{X}$ is a $Q$-Martingale, $\Delta_s=\Delta'_s$ and thus $z=z'$.
Question: I don't understand the last argument. Why is $\Delta_s=\Delta_s'$ necessarily? This question on Math.stachexchange shows one can find a non-trivial previsible process, such that the stochastic integral is almost surely equal to zero. Or do I miss something?