Here is my question: This is a question about Black-Scholes model, but it may be applicable to more complicated models. Throughout the discussion, the strike price $K$, interest rate $r$ and volatility $\sigma$ will be assumed to be constant. The thing we are interested in is the time decay of the option.
First consider a perpetual American put problem. This has an optimal exercising level which I will call $b$ and this is given by $b=\frac{K}{1+\sigma^2/2r}$
Now consider any $x>b$, this $x$ is a level, for which it would not be optimal to exercise in a perpetual option. In this case, does this necessarily mean, there exist a $T$ such that $t\in (0,T)$, the equation below holds
$\mathbb{E}_x e^{-r(t\hat{}\tau_b)}(K-X_{t\hat{}\tau_b})^+ > (K-x)^+$
here $\tau_b$ denotes the first hitting time of level $b$.
I think I have shown this is the case for some $t$. Here is my proof:
Denote $V(x)=\mathbb{E}_x e^{-r\tau_b}(K-X_{\tau_b})^+$. It is widely known that $V(x)>(K-x)^+$. Assume the statement above is false, then
$\mathbb{E}_x e^{-r(t\hat{}\tau_b)}(K-X_{t\hat{}\tau_b})^+ \leq (K-x)^+$ for all $t>0$.
Then we can take the limit as $t\uparrow\infty$ on the left-hand side and apply the dominated convergence theorem, we see that
$V(x)\leq (K-x)^+$
Contradicting the inequality $V(x)>(K-x)^+$
However, I have struggled to show $\mathbb{E}_x e^{-r(t\hat{}\tau_b)}(K-X_{t\hat{}\tau_b})^+ > (K-x)^+$ for small value of $t$. I believe this conjecture is true for all $t>0$ but struggled to prove it. Anyone has any ideas?