Quick question regarding the conditional distributions (SABR is just an example here)
Consider $$dS_t = \sigma_tS_tdW_t$$ $$d\sigma_t = \alpha\sigma_tdV $$ $$dW_tdV_t=\rho dt$$
Hence a SABR process with $\beta=1$. The volatility process is a GBM and so we can implement the exact solution and simulate $\sigma_{i+1}$ from $\sigma_i$. Now I dont't know what mathematical terminology to use on $S_t$
When $V_{i+1}$ and $V_{i}$ is KNOWN we know the exact value of $\sigma_{i+1} $ from $\sigma_i$.
With $\sigma_t$ known, we can simulate $W_{i+i}-W_{i}$ and a proper way to compute $S_{i+1}$ from $s_i$ is as a GBM with volatility $\sigma_i$. This is how it is done in practice with these parameter.
My Question: To which extend can we call $S_{i+1}$ as exact?
My own personal take: This is not exact at all because we have to know the whole path of $[\sigma_i,\sigma_{i+1}]$ to call it exact.
The reason for my confusion is that people call SABR for $\beta = 1$ for log-normal for a realized volatility.