There are several interpretations for $\Phi(d_1)$ and $\Phi(d_2)$. As you know,
\begin{align*}
C(t,S_t)=S_te^{-q(T-t)}\Phi(d_1) -Ke^{-r(T-t)}\Phi(d_2).
\end{align*}
Exercise Probabilities
We can show that
\begin{align*}
\mathbb{Q}_S[\{S_T\geq K\}]&=e^{-q(T-t)}\Phi(d_1), \\
\mathbb{Q}[\{S_T\geq K\}] &=e^{-r(T-t)}\Phi(d_2).
\end{align*}
Thus, $\Phi(d_i)$ may be seen as probabilities of the option being in the money at maturity $T$. Here, $\mathbb{Q}$ is the equivalent martingale measure using a risk-free bank account as numeraire and $\mathbb{Q}_S$ uses the stock as numeraire. As you hedge the call option with trading into the stock and a bond, it is intuitive to have these exercise probabilities here.
Hedging Statistics
Alternatively,
\begin{align*}
\Delta = \frac{\partial C(t,S_t)}{\partial S_t} =e^{-q(T-t)}\Phi(d_1), \\
\kappa = \frac{\partial C(t,S_t)}{\partial K} =e^{-r(T-t)}\Phi(d_2).
\end{align*}
If you recall the idea of a dynamic $\Delta$ hedge, this interpretation of $\Phi(d_1)$ tells you how much you need to invest in the stock in order to hedge the call. In this sense, $\kappa$ tellls you the cost of such a hedge.
Price of Binary (Digital) Options
You can see $\Phi(d_1)$ and $\Phi(d_2)$ also as prices of binary options
- $S_te^{-q(T-t)}\Phi(d_1)$ refers to the price of a European-style asset-or-nothing call option,
- $e^{-r(T-t)}\Phi(d_2)$ to the price of a European-style cash-or-nothing call option.
Derivation
By risk-neutral pricing,
\begin{align*}
C(t,S_t) &= e^{-r(T-t)}\mathbb{E}^\mathbb{Q}[\max\{S_T-K,0\}\mid\mathcal{F}_t]\\
&= e^{-r(T-t)}\mathbb{E}^\mathbb{Q}[(S_T-K)\mathbb{1}_{\{S_T\geq K\}}\mid\mathcal{F}_t]\\
&= e^{-r(T-t)}\left(\mathbb{E}^\mathbb{Q}[S_T\mathbb{1}_{\{S_T\geq K\}}\mid\mathcal{F}_t] - K\mathbb{E}^\mathbb{Q}[\mathbb{1}_{\{S_T\geq K\}}\mid\mathcal{F}_t]\right).
\end{align*}
From here, you can immediately see the decomposition into exercise probabilities and binary options.
The first expectation is typically solved by a change of numeraire. In order to compute the second probability, note that
\begin{align*}
\mathbb{E}^\mathbb{Q}[\mathbb{1}_{\{S_T\geq K\}}\mid\mathcal{F}_t] &= \mathbb{Q}[\{S_T\geq K\}\mid\mathcal{F}_t] \\
&= \mathbb{Q}[\{\ln(S_T)\geq \ln(K)\}\mid\mathcal{F}_t].
\end{align*}
Since $\ln(S_T)\mid\mathcal{F}_t\sim N\left(\ln(S_t)+\left(r-q-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2\right)(T-t),\sigma^2 (T-t)\right)$, you have for $Z\sim N(0,1)$,
\begin{align*}
\mathbb{Q}[\{\ln(S_T)\geq \ln(K)\}] &= \mathbb{Q}\left[\left\{\ln(S_t)+\left(r-q-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2\right)(T-t)+\sigma \sqrt{T-t} Z\geq \ln(K)\right\}\right] \\
&= \mathbb{Q}\left[\left\{Z\geq \frac{\ln(K)-\ln(S_t)-\left(r-q-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2\right)(T-t)}{\sigma \sqrt{T-t}}\right\}\right] \\
&= \mathbb{Q}\left[\left\{Z\geq -\frac{\ln\left(\frac{S_t}{K}\right)+\left(r-q-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2\right)(T-t)}{\sigma \sqrt{T-t}}\right\}\right] \\
&= 1-\mathbb{Q}\left[\left\{Z\leq-\frac{\ln\left(\frac{S_t}{K}\right)+\left(r-q-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2\right)(T-t)}{\sigma \sqrt{T-t}}\right\}\right] \\
&= 1-\Phi\left(-\frac{\ln\left(\frac{S_t}{K}\right)+\left(r-q-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2\right)(T-t)}{\sigma \sqrt{T-t}}\right) \\
&= \Phi\left(\frac{\ln\left(\frac{S_t}{K}\right)+\left(r-q-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2\right)(T-t)}{\sigma \sqrt{T-t}}\right) \\
&= \Phi(d_2).
\end{align*}
Of course, you can take simply the log-normal density and compute the expectation as integral. There are many more ways to derive the famous Black-Scholes formula...