I have a question on the relationship between the law of one price and cointegration of (financial) time series.
To set things clear I start with something simple:
- Suppose there is an unobserved "efficient" price $v_t$ that follows a standard Brownian motion such that $$v_t = v_0 + \int\limits_{0}^t \sigma dW_s$$.
- Two venues trade the asset and quote prices ($x_t$ and $y_t$) which reflect the efficient price and some stationary noise component: $$x_t = v_t + u_t \text{ and } y_t = v_t + \tilde u_t$$
- Then, both $x_t$ and $y_t$ exhibit a unit root but $z_t := x_t - y_t$ resembles a valid cointegration relationship because $z_t = u_t + \tilde u_t$ which is stationary.
However, I have trouble understanding the concept if things are different:
- Suppose, there is no noise at one market such that $x_t = v_t$.
- The other market simply mirrors the prices but with a possibly random lag such that $$y_t = x_{t-\tau} = v_{t-\tau}$$
- Then, under which circumstances is $z_t = x_t - y_t = \int\limits_{t-\tau}^t \sigma dW_s \sim N(0, \sigma^2\tau)$ again a stationary variable and resembles a reasonable cointegration relationship? Is it necessary that $\tau$ is stationary or are there other sufficient conditions?