Question: Given two call options $c_1$ and $c_2$ with strike price $30$ and $40$ respectively. If $c_1$ costs \$3 and $c_2$ costs \$4, is there an arbitrage opportunity?
My attempt:
Short $c_2$ and long $c_1.$ Then we make a profit of $\$4 -\$3 = \$1.$ At expiration, we have $$(S(T) - 30)^+ - (S(T) - 40)^+ = \begin{cases} 0 & \text{ if } S(T)\leq 30, \\ S(T) - 30 & \text{ if } 30\leq S(T)\leq 40, \\ 10 & \text{ if } S(T)\geq 40. \end{cases}$$ Since there is a positive probability that the payoff is nonnegative, so we have an arbitrage opportunity.
Is my attempt above correct?